Opposing proposition: Minimum wage laws and other regulations helped to create wealth in american history. That is, the government created all of our benefits/safety/pay/vacation time.
Response to the proposition:
If the government created all of our benefits, then it is not true that the private sector created some of our benefits. But if that were true then, it's not true that capitalists keep back these benefits out of greed -if by "keep back" you mean that the capitalist keeps these benefits as profit for himself; since it was admitted that nothing besides government could create benefits. Hence lack of benefits cannot be blamed on the capitalist.
But that proves, by reductio ad absurdum, that benefits do not come from government since that was the very assumption that led to the contradiction of saying that capitalists could exploit and not exploit.
Secondly, by similar reasoning, it could be proved that if nothing private could create wealth, then either private or public efforts create wealth. But private efforts don't create wealth by assumption, so only public efforts do. But this proves that the industrial revolution was a government creation -which is another contradiction.
So those are my arguments -are they valid or fallacious?
So, by my reading you claim:
A) Government creates all benefits
B) A ==> private sector creates no benefits
C) if B, capitalists cannot retain benefits
D) C ==> lack of benefits cannot be blamed on capitalists
I don't see the justification for proposition C. No reason is apparent to me why capitalists cannot retain (steal) for themselves 'benefits', even if we assume that government has created them. While sympathetic to your intention, I'm not sure this is a solid argument.
Have you actually encountered this ridiculous claim you seek to disprove?