Free Capitalist Network - Community Archive
Mises Community Archive
An online community for fans of Austrian economics and libertarianism, featuring forums, user blogs, and more.

In a libertarian society how would someone who is self-sufficient like a Siberian Old Believer or a mountain man be handled?

rated by 0 users
This post has 22 Replies | 7 Followers

Not Ranked
Male
Posts 16
Points 485
Atreides99 Posted: Fri, Feb 15 2013 2:11 PM

Say this mountain man who doesn't trade with anybody, does not receive any charity, and does not have any protection agency that he patronizes and then he goes out and murders someone. How is consent maintain while bringing this man to justice?

  • | Post Points: 95
Top 10 Contributor
Posts 6,953
Points 118,135
Top 500 Contributor
Male
Posts 317
Points 6,805
dude6935 replied on Fri, Feb 15 2013 3:09 PM

I think you are saying that crime should be defined as breach of contract. Like an implementation of an explicit version of a social contract. That would be the case for people who are a party to contracts, but that need not apply to everyone.

Once the murder takes place, those close to the victim will have justice done (whatever that is). If the mountain man and the family choose to enter arbitration, they may contract a settlement. But absent that, they will likely have conflict.

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 10 Contributor
Posts 6,953
Points 118,135
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Fri, Feb 15 2013 4:36 PM

Um, simple retribution? If a family member of the murdered goes to the mountain man's cabin and just kills him in retribution, who's going to say anything about it? The mountain man's relatives??

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 5
Top 50 Contributor
Male
Posts 1,687
Points 22,990
Bogart replied on Fri, Feb 15 2013 9:55 PM

I hope you are not implying that the current system of law actually punishes the murders and removes them from society?  Because there are lots of very public instances where people are beyond the law like Barak Obama.  Furthermore the people murdered by the Bad LA ExCop were not very well protected by the extremely expensive law enforcement and defense institutions that exist today.  And I am sure that you are not fond of the current situation where 1/3 of murders go unresolved, 49% of property crimes go unresolved and 25% of rapes get proven not to have happened or the victim recants.

But even if you are, in a free society this person would have a difficult time hiding in the wilderness as just about everybody else would not want to be harmed by this person.  Then the insurance and protective businesses would go crazy trying to find this guy as the last thing they want would be their customers to fear for thier lives.  Furthermore, prevention is cheap and clean up is expensive so unlike law enforcement these institutions would have huge incentives to predict who would be a security risk and to deal with this before there is an incident.

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 200 Contributor
Posts 372
Points 8,230

So disassociating from society gives people MORE rights?

Fuckin' voluntaryism, how does it work?

"Nutty as squirrel shit."
  • | Post Points: 20
Top 500 Contributor
Male
Posts 317
Points 6,805
dude6935 replied on Fri, Feb 15 2013 11:41 PM

So disassociating from society gives people MORE rights?

Wha? I don't follow... Rights are natural, it doesn't matter where you live, your rights are the same.

  • | Post Points: 5
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 219
Points 3,980

Atreides99:
Say this mountain man who doesn't trade with anybody, does not receive any charity, and does not have any protection agency that he patronizes and then he goes out and murders someone. How is consent maintain while bringing this man to justice?


If this mountain man doesn't trade with anybody and apparently wishes to be alone, why would he suddenly decide to kill someone (assuming that all they've done is left him alone in kind)? And even if we assume that there's a good explanation for that, how would this man have just happened upon someone to kill without first encountering their property rights in some way?  A protection agency would most certainly be aware of someone who doesn't have any agreements in place and has no intention of entering into any.

Now, accepting that everything to this point somehow makes sense, let's think about this a different way: You happen upon a burglar in your home, and when you point your gun at him and tell him to stay where he is and put his hands up, he refuses and starts walking towards you.  Are you obligated to let him do as he pleases based on the fact that he did not consent to your proposed action?

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Sat, Feb 16 2013 2:31 AM

I don't understand why the family of the murdered can't just go kill him in retribution. The scenario posited that the mountain man is completely disconnected from society. If so, then he is the one who is at risk, not us. We're connected. If he ventures down out of his hideout and commits a murder, he's the one who can be killed without repercussions precisely because he is unconnected. How can you get this backwards?

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 20
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sat, Feb 16 2013 4:08 AM

You don't need the murderers consent to bring him to trial.  Anyone can murder a murderer, or detain him and bring him to trial.  Of course if you falsely murder a murderer who wasn't really a murderer then you yourself are a murderer and anyone can murder you; this way there will be a great incentive to make sure vigallantee justice is used only when the evidence is compelling.

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Sat, Feb 16 2013 10:32 AM

You don't need the murderers consent to bring him to trial.  Anyone can murder a murderer, or detain him and bring him to trial.  Of course if you falsely murder a murderer who wasn't really a murderer then you yourself are a murderer and anyone can murder you; this way there will be a great incentive to make sure vigallantee justice is used only when the evidence is compelling.

O.o
  -

WTF?

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 35
Top 50 Contributor
Male
Posts 2,493
Points 39,355
Malachi replied on Sat, Feb 16 2013 10:41 AM

I think he means like in a Murder Nebulae.

Keep the faith, Strannix. -Casey Ryback, Under Siege (Steven Seagal)
  • | Post Points: 5
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 205
Points 2,945
Johnny Doe replied on Sat, Feb 16 2013 11:28 AM

Bogart:
Furthermore, prevention is cheap and clean up is expensive so unlike law enforcement these institutions would have huge incentives to predict who would be a security risk and to deal with this before there is an incident.
How would they go about doing this, i.e. being proactive, like the government does today?

  • | Post Points: 5
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 5:59 AM

see chapters 12 and 13 of ethics of liberty

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 5
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 6:03 AM

although i don't think that's the passage i'm thinking of and it contradicts me by saying or implying that only the heirs can murder / have the murderer murdered

 

edit : page 90 I think 

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 5
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 6:07 AM

essentially the point being, you do not have to wait for a guilty verdict to punish a criminal (for example murdering a murderer) or to use force to aprehend a criminal (perhaps to bring him to trial) BUT if you do use force against someone on the assumption of guilt, or to punish a criminal and they are later exonerated or there is not enough evidence against them, then you yourself are not exempt from prosecution. 

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 11:35 AM

@Meistro: You do understand that the word "murder" means criminal homicide? If someone kills your brother, and you "kill him back" in retribution, if the law does not view your actions as criminal, then it's not murder.

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 20
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 12:19 PM

That's true, I used murder in some places in that sentence where I should have used kill.  Imprecision of language, certainly but you would think from the context it was obvious what I meant.

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 500 Contributor
Posts 267
Points 5,370
Meistro replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 12:21 PM

Still, can we not say, for example, that the state murders me if I am killed unjustly by an agent of the state?  Even though all state killings will likely be 'legal', since of course that is determined by the state.  

 

... just as the State has no money of its own, so it has no power of its own - Albert Jay Nock

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 50 Contributor
Posts 2,679
Points 45,110
gotlucky replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 12:26 PM

Murder seems to have two common meanings:

1) Criminal homicide (what Clayton said)

2) Immoral killing

As long as you know what the other person means, then you can communicate effectively. As to this:

Meistro:

Still, can we not say, for example, that the state murders me if I am killed unjustly by an agent of the state?  Even though all state killings will likely be 'legal', since of course that is determined by the state.  

If you realize that the state's rules are based on might makes right, then it would be murder if an agent of the state unjustly killed you. After all, if it's murder for a mugger or the mob to kill you, then it's murder for the state to do it too.

  • | Post Points: 20
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 12:41 PM

I think it's actually impossible for the State to act justly for the same reason the State cannot calculate economically: because it is an institution of monopolized aggression, it has no idea whether what it is doing is just an expression of its own interests or is actually just. To the extent it has succeeded in monopolizing the courts, it has squashed all possibility of knowing what is or is not just. I call it the "hot air theory of justice"... as if so much talking and debating could establish civil right and wrong any more than it can establish the correct price of oranges in downtown Mobile.

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 5
Top 10 Contributor
Male
Posts 6,885
Points 121,845
Clayton replied on Sun, Feb 17 2013 12:44 PM

 Imprecision of language, certainly but you would think from the context it was obvious what I meant.

Nowhere is precision of language more highly demanded than in this particular area. It is amazingly difficult to meaningfully criticize the status quo legal order; to do so, you must fix your language very carefully, and stick to your conventions with discipline. Otherwise, you just end up with a morass of unjustified opinion no different from everybody else's unjustified opinions.

Clayton -

http://voluntaryistreader.wordpress.com
  • | Post Points: 5
Page 1 of 1 (23 items) | RSS