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Why A Priori and Not A Posteriori?

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thetabularasa Posted: Sun, Nov 18 2012 2:36 PM | Locked

Another thread piqued my curiosity. Why do many Austrians on this forum and even Mises tout a priori reasoning and not a posteriori reasoning? To clarify, as my moniker might suggest, I believe that all knowledge is gained through sense experience. Induction or deduction in the form of "a priori knowledge" must inevitably result from a posteriori conclusions as its basis.

I'm open to ulterior explanations; genuinely curious how an economic system can result from a priori assertions while negating empiricism.

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gotlucky replied on Sun, Nov 18 2012 2:49 PM | Locked

Praxeology and Economic Science, by Hoppe, excerpt from Economics Science and the Austrian Method. This is quite a good read, and it should answer your questions thoroughly.

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thetabularasa replied on Sun, Nov 18 2012 2:52 PM | Locked

Thanks buddy.

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Jon Irenicus replied on Sun, Nov 18 2012 3:02 PM | Locked

Closing this as there's a very similar topic open.

Freedom of markets is positively correlated with the degree of evolution in any society...

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