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So you are saying that Spain never really experienced anarchy and that it's only called anarchy because of the popularity of anarchist thought and anarchist political parties?
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You have any sources?
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It is always referred to by anarcho-communists in infoshop.org as proof of an anarchy based on egalitarianism and public property. How do AnCaps here answer this allegation? I also want to know how the farmers and workers took over the means of production? Was there any violence involved? http://dandelionsalad...