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  • Re: Libertarian ethics

    NAP is the foundation of libertarian legal theory. It defines what act is considered lawful and what act is considered unlawful. The consideration is based on whether the act is aggressive or not. According to libertarians "...[aggression] is defined as the initiation of the use or threat of physical violence against the person or property of anyone
    Posted to Political Theory (Forum) by vaduka on Tue, Dec 28 2010
  • Re: Public goods question

    This bridge question does not make any sense at all. What is disturbing is that there are economists (or should I say "economists") who spend their time designing and then trying to resolve such "economic problems". I know that this is not a valid logical argument against the question, it is my opinion. I do not write about the logic
    Posted to Economics Questions (Forum) by vaduka on Mon, Dec 27 2010
  • Re: Danny's Article Feedback Request Thread

    This is a very good article!
    Posted to Economics Questions (Forum) by vaduka on Mon, Dec 27 2010
  • Re: Ownership for use only?

    I believe that homesteading is merely used in natural law terminology to describe the method in which a human individual can have a legitimate claim of ownership over previously unowned resource. The natural law does not state what you should do with this resource once you have finished the original appropriation, which meaning is contained in the method
    Posted to Political Theory (Forum) by vaduka on Mon, Dec 27 2010
  • Re: What is law?

    Some argue that the word law means order. I do not know whether there is lexical semantics involved in this argument, i.e. that law is a synonym for order. If it was so, then I could use both of them interchangeably in a sentence, because their meaning is supposed to be identical or very close. Actually, these two words do not have the same lexical
    Posted to General (Forum) by vaduka on Mon, Dec 27 2010
  • Re: Free Market Solution to Blood Diamonds?

    The one who is at fault is the same person who violated someones property rights. A company which has a total stock of X diamonds does not violate anyone's property rights if it offers on the market only X minus Y.
    Posted to Economics Questions (Forum) by vaduka on Wed, Dec 22 2010
  • Re: Praxeology refutations

    Is the argument which you call "best" also valid? What is the formulation of the argument against the apodictic arguments of Mises?
    Posted to Political Theory (Forum) by vaduka on Tue, Dec 21 2010
  • Re: Robinson Crusoe had property T/F (Property is a social institution? No)

    every law that comes into existence through the process of the free-market means that there is a consent of two parties willing to cooperate in a definite manner. the very fact of two human individuals interacting in a manner that is freed from coercion or the threat of such means there is voluntarism which implies that the non-aggression principle
    Posted to Political Theory (Forum) by vaduka on Tue, Dec 21 2010
  • Re: Money, medium of exchange vs store of value?

    "If a group of people would voluntarily get together and decide to use money that no intrinsic value, well that would be an interesting experiment. My guess is that the money would fall by the wayside." well, fiat currencies do exist because of government monopoly and legal tender law, otherwise it would be highly unlikely for an individual
    Posted to Economics Questions (Forum) by vaduka on Sun, Dec 19 2010
  • Re: Robinson Crusoe had property T/F (Property is a social institution? No)

    guy A stealing guy B's property is a coercive act. a coercive act that results in something taken away from someone without his consent is considered theft. if guy B surrendered with his property voluntarily then this is not considered theft. as you can see the very definition of theft includes some violent act on the part of one guy that results
    Posted to Political Theory (Forum) by vaduka on Sun, Dec 19 2010
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