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[quote user="Torsten"]Wouldn't that still be conspiracy to commit a crime or incitement to commit a crime? [/quote] I would say it is the crime: i.e. murder. Both the employer and the hitman are guilty of murder. By my "knew or should have known" standard for liability, the employer of the hitman is liable because (1) his action
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Clayton, The degree of causal connection between an action and a tort which is sufficient for assigning liability to the actor is like the degree of use of some plot of unowned land which is sufficient for assigning ownership to the user. It cannot be determined a priori, but we know it when we see it . The purpose of the "knew or should have known"
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[quote user="Torsten"]What about the NAP ?[/quote] I don't see why a private company ousting a State would necessary involve violations of the NAP.
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[quote user="Clayton"]The last agent in the causal chain is solely responsible.[/quote] There are problems with that standard. For example: If someone hires a hitman, and the hitman kills someone, the hitman is the last agent in the causal chain. So only the hitman is liable, not his employer? If someone puts poison in your milkshake, and
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There was a discussion of this subject in this thread a while back. I think it's absolutely compatible with libertarian principles, and could be very successful if done right.
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Clayton, Ignoring states of mind is problematic in general IMO. For example, I might define liability as follows. Person Q is liable for tort X if and only if person Q took an action which (1) was a necessary condition for tort X to occur, and (2) which person Q knew or reasonably should have known would cause tort X. What happens if we drop the second
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If the money-fairy magically doubled all cash balances overnight, there would be no economic impact. The reason that inflation in reality has an economic impact is that new money is not instantly and proportionally distributed to all holders of money. Inflation doesn't reduce purchasing power in general, it redistributes it from those who receive
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[quote user="hashem"]I'm really confused about your question. You are saying "take it as a given that X has the right" and then asking "does X have the right". Either he does or he doesn't...[/quote] I'm asking about the application of that principle. In the case of Smith trespassing on my land, it is clear
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@hashem, I fully appreciate that ethics are normative. For the purpose of my question, I'm taking it as given that a person has the right to use force to halt a property rights violation in progress, and I'm asking about how that principle applies in practice. The discussion about pollution is usually limited to restitution, but I'm curious
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The right to use force to defend one's property is essential to property rights. If someone is in the process of violating my property rights, I have the right to use force to stop this violation. For example, if Smith is trespassing on my land, I have a right to use force to remove him. But what about other sorts of violations? Suppose Smith is