Even if the labour theory of value were correct I fail to see how ownership could be completely non exclusive.
Wouldn't the workers be restriced in their ownership to those of the means of production that they actually have put their labor into?
So for example, worker A, B and C can only claim collective ownership over factory X where they work and not factory Y where they don't work.
I fail to see how marxists can claim that the labor theory of value legitimizes a world central planner. That the workers of both factory X and Y have the same class interest (overthrow the capitalists) doesn't seem to have any relevance.
Thoughts?