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<?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/utility/FeedStylesheets/rss.xsl" media="screen"?><rss version="2.0" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:slash="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/slash/" xmlns:wfw="http://wellformedweb.org/CommentAPI/"><channel><title>Economics Questions</title><link>https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/5.aspx</link><description /><dc:language>en</dc:language><generator>CommunityServer 2008.5 SP2 (Build: 40407.4157)</generator><item><title>error in economic thought before adam smith?</title><link>https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/thread/328537.aspx</link><pubDate>Thu, 29 Apr 2010 12:57:06 GMT</pubDate><guid isPermaLink="false">944abf2b-d1be-4bf2-990d-438cb0e377e9:328537</guid><dc:creator>Meistro</dc:creator><slash:comments>0</slash:comments><comments>https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/thread/328537.aspx</comments><wfw:commentRss>https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/commentrss.aspx?SectionID=5&amp;PostID=328537</wfw:commentRss><description>&lt;p&gt;
	page 50, which is in the chapter on the middle ages.&amp;nbsp; second paragraph, very end.&amp;nbsp;&lt;/p&gt;
&lt;p&gt;
	he says that by william&amp;#39;s logic we could then conclude that all free exchanges are involuntary, when I think he should be referring to all non free exchanges?&amp;nbsp;&lt;/p&gt;&lt;div style="clear:both;"&gt;&lt;/div&gt;</description></item></channel></rss>