Political Theory

Re: Austrian Countries?

Aristophanes — Sat, 22 Sep 2012 09:25:13 GMT

Misesian rationality refers to the use of means towards ends.

There isn't anything deeper to 'means'? Do the people know that their actions will result in the desired end, so far as they have knowledge to comprehend the exact circumstances? What makes means towards ends rational? Does means equate to cause?

Can this be framed with more modern philosophy of action terminology?

Re: Austrian Countries?

Aristippus — Sat, 22 Sep 2012 08:20:30 GMT

Misesian rationality refers to the use of means towards ends.

Re: Austrian Countries?

Aristophanes — Sat, 22 Sep 2012 01:41:47 GMT

Daniel:

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

And as such International Relations theory fails remarkably.

Ummm. Has anyone here ever read Kenneth Waltz? States are just like corporations. They are groups of people. Those groups and similar interests and act accordingly (as if together) in order to accomplish things that may only benefit them the slightest in the long term.

I realize the "only humans act" was a clever joke, but the response about international relations is kind of dumb.

Anyway, cooperative-individual action occurs at all levels. I would argue, even at the level of the nation state (and certain levels beyond and through that), we call the bureaucracies. Waltz built the realist model of international relations on the concept that nation state actors are in an inherently anarchic world order. There is no international set of rules, there are only agreements and conflict among the nation state actors (groups of cooperating individuals known as bureaucracies). Each state is free to do as it pleases so long as the other states allow it to do so.

This doesn't seem like it fails.

Austrian theory: Human beings act rationally ;)

Isn't Austrian "rationality" axiomatic or tautologic? In that, "all action is rational" based on....what exactly?

Re: Austrian Countries?

SkepticalMetal — Sat, 22 Sep 2012 01:31:58 GMT

But didn't 1776-1792 America have the Hamiltonian policy?

Re: Austrian Countries?

Peter Wild — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 13:43:25 GMT

The Austrian School was quite present in German and Austrian economics before WWII. The best example is by shure the person Hjalmar Schacht - President of the German Reichsbank between 1933 and 1939 - and Minister of Economics of the IIIrd Reich between 1934 to 1937.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hjalmar_Schacht

Re: Austrian Countries?

No2statism — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 05:37:25 GMT

Under the Articles of Confederation (c. 1781-1789) there was no central bank, and taxes were very low as a country. However, some states could have high taxes if they choosed to. And it was up to each state whether its tender had to be legal.

Re: Austrian Countries?

Sieben — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 04:30:21 GMT

Daniel:
States do not act; only humans do.

In this sense, every country applies Austrian theory: Human beings act rationally ;)

But sometimes they use guns :(

Re: Austrian Countries?

krazy kaju — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 04:21:37 GMT

The only Austrian country is Austria, and they do not practice free market economics. There has never been a single example of a truly pure free market, although there are some close examples (e.g. anarchist Ireland and Iceland).

Re: Austrian Countries?

DanielMuff — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 00:17:21 GMT

Also, Austrian Economics doesn't advocate anything. It simply attempts to explain economics. I suppose that what you are asking is, for example, has there been a country that hasn't had a central bank that inflated? In that case, there were two US central bank in the 1800s.

Re: Austrian Countries?

Conza88 — Wed, 11 Nov 2009 00:10:21 GMT

Daniel:

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

And as such International Relations theory fails remarkably.

Re: Austrian Countries?

DanielMuff — Tue, 10 Nov 2009 23:58:45 GMT

I don't think that is possible. States do not act; only humans do.

Austrian Countries?

Felipe — Tue, 10 Nov 2009 22:47:59 GMT

Can you give me a list of countries that have successfully applied the theories of the Austrian School?

Would it be fair to name the US (1776-1792) an Austrian Country?