https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/8.aspxDiscussion of political theory.enCommunityServer 2008.5 SP2 (Build: 40407.4157)https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/thread/344095.aspxThu, 01 Jul 2010 01:09:52 GMT944abf2b-d1be-4bf2-990d-438cb0e377e9:344095Magnus0https://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/thread/344095.aspxhttps://archive.freecapitalists.org:443/forums/commentrss.aspx?SectionID=8&PostID=344095<p> Even if the labour theory of value were correct I fail to see how ownership could be completely non exclusive.&nbsp;</p> <p> Wouldn&#39;t the workers be restriced in their ownership to those of the means of production that they actually have put their labor into?</p> <p> So for example, worker A, B and C can only claim collective ownership over factory X where they work and not factory Y where they don&#39;t work.</p> <p> I fail to see how marxists can claim that the labor theory of value legitimizes a world central planner. That the workers of both factory X and Y have the same class interest (overthrow the capitalists) doesn&#39;t seem to have any relevance.</p> <p> Thoughts?</p><div style="clear:both;"></div>