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In note #37 of In Defense of Extreme Rationalism, Hoppe refers to “the preceding conclusion regarding the characteristic of causality as an action-produced phenomenon …” Revisiting the discussion that precedes note #37, I cannot find quite this conclusion. I find the conclusions that...
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OK, here is one thing that has puzzled me. From an epistemological standpoint, isn't the Austrian School empirical? I mean, aren't logical axioms self evident, and something that is self evident based on our experience, making it an empirical observation? AFAIK, the empirical school of thought...