http://pragcap.com/bernanke-explains-why-qe2-is-not-money-printing-again
I know I'm a bit late to the party on asking this question. As I read it, the first thing I thought of is that banks now have cash to loan whereas they once had bonds. That seems inflationary to me. Is that where he's wrong? Thanks in advance!
According to the Austrian understanding of inflation, which is an increase in the money supply, then quantitative easing is undoubtedly inflationary. However, as has been pointed out in other threads, this money isn't being loaned out to the general public at a very high volume so the increase in prices isn't that exponential.
I'm sure someone here has the numbers on it, but most of the money from QE2 is being kept in the national Federal Reserve bank and the regional banks.
First of all, Jon Stewart had Bernanke admitting it IS money printing about a year ago, then more recently saying it is not. Youtube is your friend.
Here are links to some threads on the subject.
http://mises.org/Community/forums/t/20916.aspx
http://mises.org/Community/forums/t/21020.aspx
And here: http://mises.org/Community/forums/t/20935.aspx
And here: https://mises.org/Community/forums/t/22235.aspx
And here: http://mises.org/Community/forums/t/23286.aspx
Here is a bit of wikipedia on QE. Note Step 2, which is the money printing:
Now, Bernanke had the gall to explain that it is not money printing because no new currency is put into circulation. Meaning physical paper dollars are not run off a prining press. But electronic dollars ARE created, and he mumbles his way through that.
And of course it is inflationary.
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It's easy to refute an argument if you first misrepresent it. William Keizer
Ok that first thread answered the question. Thanks.