OK, tell me where I read this. I'm pretty sure it's from Rothbard, but it could aslo be ...made up? an inference that i made? I don't know.
G/S's true intent was to destabilize British Banks.
The Rockefellers had National City Bank, the commerical end, and National City Trust, the investment end and would have not been effected by G/S, or less effected. During the FDR administration the Rockefeller interests and allies had gained control and attempted to stifle the British banks. In the 1930's they took the power of the NYFED to the FOMC, everyone knows the story, it took power away from the British influenced monolith. The other aspect is the G/S Act, taking the British advantage away and at the same time allowing the FED to buy Government bonds, yes?
I'm trying to verify that I am not lying to people on the internet with this information. Thanks!
Here you go.
Thank you!